Psalm 2

The language in the two different versions of the Psalm is so radically different, it hardly seems like they are the same piece of writing. They were translated from the same Hebrew text but differ drastically. The translation in the Book of Psalms is quite modern while the other is fairly old-fashioned. Overall, the general meaning of the Psalm does not change drastically, but in many places the differences in language create differences in connotation. For example, in v. 2, in the Book of Psalms version, the word "conspire" is used as opposed to the word "consult." These two words mean relatively similar things but "conspire" holds a more sinister and secretive connotation. It is difficult to know what the original author intended.
The place where I notice rather large difference in actual meanings is in v. 1. ("Why rage the heathen furiously?" vs. "Why are the nations aroused?"). Heathens raging furiously and nations being aroused seem like very different things to me. Heathen, in a religious context, especially, is quite different from "nation" which also has it's own unique Biblical connotation.
If I was puritan, I would probably think I was doing alright in obeying God but be worried that I might make a mistake. The writer of the psalm seems to condemn others for their actions and defend/promote himself and his actions. The Puritans were generally fearful of God's wrath and very serious about obeying him. They were often scornful and distrustful of those who did not do the same.